设f(x)可导,且f'(0=1,又y=f(x^2+sin^2x)+f(arctanx),求dy/dx /x=0
人气：410 ℃ 时间：2019-12-10 02:06:42
解答
记g(x)=f(x^2+sin^2x)+f(arctanx)=y
g'(x)=f'(x^2+sin^2x)(2x+sin2x)+f'(arctanx)/(x2+1)
dy/dx|x=0,即g'(0)
代入得：g'(0)=1
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